Fluvoxamine (Faverin - Duphar) has been marketed recently with claims that it should be considered for patients ‘where somatic symptoms have no organic cause’, after establishing an underlying low mood. This differs subtly from the data sheet indication of, ‘those affective disorders characterised by persistent low mood, impaired psychomotor activities and psychosomatic complaints’, as many people with a low mood are not necessarily suffering from a definite affective disorder. Are these wide claims justified?
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